IAS Prelims GS Questions and Answers - April 02, 2016

1)   Which of the following are the properties of Quasars?

1) Far off distance from Earth
2) Brightest
3) Low Temperatures


a. 1, 3
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 2
d. All of the above
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: 1, 2

Explanation:

  • Quasars or quasi-stellar radio sources are the most energetic and distant members of a class of objects called active galactic nuclei (AGN).
  • They have high temperatures, Quasars are extremely distant objects in our known universe. They are the furthest objects away from our galaxy that can be seen. Quasars are extremely bright masses of energy and light. Quasars are the brightest objects in our universe.
  • Most quasars were formed approximately 12 billion years ago, and they are normally caused by collisions of galaxies, with the galaxies' central black holes merging to form either a supermassive black hole or a binary black hole system.


2)   Which of the following is the key for the progress of the broad-based Bilateral Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) between the EU and India?

a. Access to market
b. Nuclear Material Supply
c. Natural gas
d. Visa permits
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Access to market

Explanation:

  • Obtaining greater access to the market for services in the European Union (EU) is key for the progress of the Broadbased Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) between the EU and India.
  • India has not been granted “data secure” status by the EU, and this has hampered the progress of negotiations around the liberalisation of trade in services in the BTIA talks. Being considered ‘data secure’ is crucial for a number of services especially in the IT and ITES sectors.
  • The contours of the discussions had recently been widened by the EU to involve investments, not just trade in goods and services, converting a free trade agreement into a broader scope trade and investment agreement. This has stalled the discussions on the BTIA.


3)   Which of the following are the new categories of Centrally Sponsored Schemes?

1) Decentralized
2) Optional
3) Core


a. 1, 3
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 2
d. All of the above
Answer  Explanation  Related Ques

ANSWER: 2, 3

Explanation:

  • This year government has introduced a new classification system for the Centre’s spending.
  • The new system divides Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) into three categories: Core of the Core, Core, and Optional Schemes. This system is based on the recommendations of a sub-committee of chief ministers formed by Niti Aayog for the rationalisation of the CSS.
  • Only Schemes/Programmes in CSS in key identified sectors will comprise the National Development Agenda.
  • Amongst the Core Schemes, those for social protection and social inclusion should form the Core of the Core and be the first charge on available funds for the National Development Agenda.
  • Under the new classification, eight schemes will be classified as Core of the Core. including MGNREGA and all the umbrella schemes for the upliftment of minorities, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes.
  • The Core schemes, 33 in number, include schemes as far-ranging as the Krishi Unnati Yojana, the Smart Cities programme, and the modernisation of the police force.


4)   Which of the following is/are true about core and optional schemes?

1) As per the new system of classification, the Core of the Core schemes will have complete central funding.
2) The Optional schemes will have complete state funding with an option to decide whether to invest in these or not.


a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer  Explanation  Related Ques

ANSWER: Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

  • As per the new system, the Core of the Core schemes will retain their expenditure allocation framework. For example, MGNREGA had 75 per cent of the material expenditure from the Centre and 25 per cent from the states.
  • The Core schemes will have a 60:40 formula, while the Optional schemes will have a 50:50 formula, with the states having the flexibility to decide whether to invest in these or not.
  • Funds for Optional Schemes would be allocated to States by the Ministry of Finance as a lump sum and States would be free to choose which Optional Schemes they wish to implement.
  • Additionally, the States have been given the flexibility of portability of funds from optional schemes (should it choose not to utilize to utilize its entire allocation under that head) to any other CSS component within the overall allocation for the state under Central Assistance to State Plan (CASP).


5)   Which of the following is/are true regarding new rules of FDI in e-commerce?

1) Due to new rules of FDI in marketplace e-commerce, the customers will get huge online discounts.
2) As per the new rules, the e-commerce players will act as technology providers and not as retailers.


a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer  Explanation  Related Ques

ANSWER: Only 2

Explanation:

  • The government’s foreign direct investment norms for e-commerce marketplaces may prove to be a dampener for consumers due to the clampdown on pricing freedom for marketplace operators and lack of adequate post-sales safeguards.
  • Marketplace retailers will not be able to extend lucrative discounts to attract customers. However, it appears that with the consent and association of the owner of the inventory, the e-retailers may yet be able to provide additional promotional discounts. However, discounts will be to a certain point and by sellers only.
  • It is being said by some that e-commerce marketplaces should behave like marketplaces and provide technology platforms to sellers by charging a fee rather than getting into an inventory-based model. Fees should be their only income; this can put an end to the predatory pricing and provide level playing field for all.
  • Additionally, the customer might be left in the lurch thanks to other conditions in the policy. Marketplaces have been allowed to provide services such as warehousing, logistics support, order fulfillment and payment collection to the seller. However, ‘post sales, delivery of goods to the customer and customer satisfaction will be the responsibility of the seller.’


6)   Under which article does it fall on the Central Government to ensure authorization expenditure of the State?

a. 356
b. 357
c. 358
d. 365
Answer  Explanation  Related Ques

ANSWER: 357

Explanation:

  • It falls upon the Central Government to ensure that steps are taken under Article 357 to authorize expenditure of the State if the state is placed under President’s rule.
  • Article 357 relates to exercise of legislative powers under Proclamation issued under Article 356 (President’s Rule).


7)   The recent amendment to the Enemy Property Act, 1968 is related to?

a. Sale of the enemy property
b. Reuse of the enemy property
c. Giving back of the enemy property
d. Guard against claims on property by descendants of the migrated
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Guard against claims on property by descendants of the migrated

Explanation:

  • In the wake of the India-Pakistan war of 1965, the Indian Government took over the properties and companies of those who migrated to Pakistan and became citizens of that country.
  • These “Enemy Properties” – as well as the properties left behind by those who went to China after the 1962 Sino-Indian war — were vested by the Central government in the Custodian of Enemy Property for India through the Enemy Property Act, 1968.
  • The Central Government, through the Custodian, is in possession of enemy properties spread across many States.
  • The amendments to the Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Bill, 2016, passed by the Lok Sabha, intended to guard against claims of succession by or transfer of properties to descendants of those who migrated after the wars. The amendments even deny legal heirs even if they are Indian citizens any right over such property, and disallows any civil court or other authority from entertaining any suit or proceeding in respect of any enemy property or any action taken by the Government or the Custodian.
  • The main aim is to negate the effect of a Supreme Court judgment of 2005 in favour of the current Raja of Mahmudabad, who fought legal battles for 30 years to gain possession of the estates of his father after the latter’s death.


8)   The Ranjit Roy Committee is regarding

a. Clinical trials
b. Environmental degradation
c. Higher Education
d. Agricultural Subsidies
Answer  Explanation  Related Ques

ANSWER: Clinical trials

Explanation:

  • The committee was regarding the clinical trials.
  • Committee has recommended major changes in the guidelines for approval of new drugs, clinical trials and banning of medicines.
  • It suggested setting up of a council to oversee the accreditation of institutions, clinical investigators and institute ethics committees for clinical trials in the country.
  • It suggested that academic research should be approved by the Institutional Ethics Committees.
  • Government has implemented many recommendations from the committees report. It wants to create a system in which research and innovation are not caught in red tape. This is part of the government’s ease of regulation reforms.
  • Many students test existing drugs and their study is delayed because of permissions required from the DCGI. Now, their institutions’ ethics committees are authorized to allow them, which should nurture an environment of research in the country.
  • The only defence for this decision can be that this is academic, not commercial, research. These are academic exercises. They cannot experiment with new molecules. The element of risk is lower but ethics committees need to be independent. It will depend on the institutions how they use it, which leaves a huge loophole.
  • In 2013, the Supreme Court banned trials after a public interest litigation petition brought to light that trials conducted in various parts of the country had violated patient rights as informed consent was not taken, and the patients subjected to clinical trials included newborns, children, pregnant women and mentally challenged persons.


9)   Siddi is a tribe in India. However, they have their origins in which of the following tribes?

a. European tribe
b. Indigenous Indian tribe
c. Mongolian tribe
d. African tribe
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: African tribe

Explanation:

  • Siddi, the African tribe, has called India their home from the past 200 years.
  • There are only about 55,000 Siddis in India today who live in small, secluded settlements in Karnataka, Maharashtra, Gujarat and parts of Goa.
  • Even though their food, clothes and language are completely adapted to the local cultures of whichever part of India they live in, traces of their African roots still echo in their dance and music traditions.
  • With Marathi and Konkani as their lingua franca, the Siddi families in Karnataka are Roman Catholics, Hindus and Muslims - all united by their distinct music and culture. Their songs tell the story of the way they live and reflect their passion for hunting.
  • While agriculture is their main source of livelihood, the youngsters of the tribe are slowly migrating to cities and work as labourers. Interestingly, their tribe in Karnataka has 35 per cent literacy rate.
  • In their community, women study more and are much more responsible and active than men.
  • Unlike other tribes, the Siddis do not enforce restrictions on marrying outside their community.
  • With a strong community bonding, the Siddis believe in the culture of sharing the day’s catch equally among all families in the village. This ancient practice is still being followed in most Siddi tribe settlements.


10)   Which of the following constitutes the new regimen of TB treatment?

1) Daily drug regimen
2) Intermittent Drug regimen
3) Tailor made drug dosages


a. 1, 3
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 2
d. All of the above
Answer  Explanation  Related Ques

ANSWER: 1, 3

Explanation:

  • The Central TB Division has undergone major shift in policy from the intermittent drug regimen (wherein TB patients were being administered drugs thrice a week) to the daily drug regimen.
  • WHO was for daily drug regime since 2010.
  • Instead of several individual drugs, patients will be put on fixed drug combinations, i.e., three or more drugs as a single dose, to reduce the pill burden and to simplify the treatment for the patient. The dosages are in four specific weight bands.
  • As per Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP), the pilot project is going on in 5 states, 104 districts which include all the 14 districts of Kerala.
  • The hurdles in effective implementation are – drug procurement logistics and huge volume of patients.