1) Which among the following is/are the feature/s characteristic/s of an integrated op-amp?
a. Small size
b. High reliability
c. Low cost & less power consumption
d. All of the above
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2) In a typical op-amp, which stage is supposed to be a dual-input unbalanced output or single-ended output differential amplifier?
a. Input stage
b. Intermediate stage
c. Output stage
d. Level shifting stage
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3) In differential mode of op-amp, if output voltage is equal to the difference between outputs of individual transistors, its amplitude will be _______the amplitude of signal voltage yielded at collector to ground.
a. twice
b. thrice
c. four times
d. one-fourth times
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4) In a differential amplifier, the configuration is said to be an 'unbalanced output', if ________
a. Output voltage is measured between two collectors
b. Output is measured with respect to ground
c. Two input signals are used
d. All of the above
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5) Input offset current is basically defined as the algebraic ______ the base current of two transistors.
a. sum of
b. difference between
c. product of
d. division of
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6) Unipolar belongs to ________technology/ies of integrated circuits.
a. Hybrid
b. Monolithic
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
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7) Which among the following belong to the category of bipolar technology?
A. JFET
B. MOSFET
C. P-N junction isolation
D. Di-electric isolation
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. C & D
d. A & D
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8) Which op-amp technology/ies exhibit/s low current sourcing/ sinking capacity?
a. Bipolar op-amp
b. CMOS op-amp
c. BICMOS op-amp
d. All of the above
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9) How many stages are involved in bipolar op-amp?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
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10) In op-amps, which type of noise occurs due to discrete flow of current in the device?
a. Shot noise
b. Burst noise
c. Thermal noise
d. Flicker noise
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11) Which among the following is a nonlinear application of op-amp?
a. V to I converter
b. Comparator
c. Precision rectifier
d. Instrumentation amplifier
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12) What is the feedback factor of voltage follower circuit?
a. Zero
b. Unity
c. Infinity
d. Between zero & one
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13) For non-inverting adder, which theorem is applicable to determine the expression for output voltage?
a. Thevenin's
b. Norton's
c. Miller's
d. Superposition
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14) Which among the following is/are the requirement/s of an instrumentation amplifier?
a. High slew rate
b. High input resistance
c. High CMRR
d. All of the above
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15) For a temperature controller circuit comprising instrumentation amplifier, which among the following is adopted as a temperature sensor?
a. Thermistor
b. Sensistor
c. Thyristor
d. Thermocouple
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16) Which parameter/s is/are used to indicate the speed of a comparator?
a. Response Time
b. Propagation Delay
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
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17) Basically, response time is defined as the time acquired by the comparator to accomplish ______of its transition corresponding to the voltage step at the input.
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 100%
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18) For an ideal comparator, what should be the value of the response time?
a. Zero
b. Unity
c. Infinite
d. Unpredictable
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19) Zero crossing detector circuit plays a crucial role in conversion of input sine wave into a perfect _________at its output.
a. triangular wave
b. square wave
c. saw-tooth wave
d. pulse wave
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20) For reducing the effects of input offset in comparator, what would be the possible value of input offset voltage?
a. Low
b. Moderate
c. High
d. None of the above
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21) In weighted resistor DAC, how many resistor/s per bit is/are required?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
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22) In DAC, resolution increases with the _________ in number of bits.
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Constant
d. None of the above
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23) Which among the following characteristics of D/A converter occur/s due to resistor and semiconductor aging?
a. Speed
b. Settling time
c. Long term drift
d. Supply rejection
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24) In DACs, which type of error/s specify/ies the amount by which the actual output of DAC differ from ideal straight line transfer characteristics?
a. Linearity error
b. Offset error
c. Gain error
d. All of the above
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25) Offset error is basically defined as the non-zero level of analog output especially when all the digital inputs are ____.
a. 0
b. 1
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
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26) Basically, PLL is used to lock _______
a. Its output frequency
b. Phase to the frequency
c. Phase of the input signal
d. All of the above
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27) In communication circuits, PLL is currently applicable for __________
a. Demodulation applications
b. Tracking a carrier or synchronizing signal
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
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28) In the locked state of PLL, the phase error between the input & output is _________.
a. Maximum
b. Moderate
c. Minimum
d. All of the above
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29) Once the phase is locked, the PLL tracks the variation in the input frequency. This indicates that _____
a. Output frequency changes by same amount as that of input frequency
b. Output frequency does not change as that of input frequency
c. There is no relation between input & output frequencies
d. None of the above
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Answer
Explanation
Related Ques
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ANSWER: Output frequency changes by same amount as that of input frequency
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
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30) In PLL, the capture range is always _________the lock range.
a. Greater than
b. Equal to
c. Less than
d. None of the above
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31) Which among the following factors affect/s the output voltage of a regulated power supply?
a. Load current
b. Input voltage
c. Temperature
d. All of the above
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32) Which performance parameter of a regulator is defined as the change in regulated load voltage due to variation in line voltage in a specified range at a constant load current?
a. Load regulation
b. Line regulation
c. Temperature stability factor
d. Ripple rejection
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33) The % load regulation of a power supply should be ideally ________ & practically _______.
a. zero, small
b. small, zero
c. zero, large
d. large, zero
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34) Switching regulators are series type regulators, which has ______ power dissipation & ______ efficiency.
a. increased, increased
b. increased, reduced
c. reduced, increased
d. reduced, reduced
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35) In a linear IC voltage regulator, series pass transistor always operates in ______ region.
a. Active
b. Saturation
c. Cut-off
d. All of the above
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