Football, FIFA, - Indian Polity Questions and Answers

1)   Which is/are true regarding PESA Act, 1996?

1) It aims to safeguard and preserve the customs of tribals.
2) It aims to make Gram Sabha nucleus of all activities.
3) It is applicable to nine states with scheduled areas.
4) Only 2 states have enacted legislation compliant with PESA provisions.


a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. All of the above
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: 1, 2 and 4

Explanation:

    PESA Act of 1996 (EXTENSION ACT) -

  • Panchayats’ provisions of Part 9 of the constitution are not applicable to the Fifth Schedule areas.

  • But, the Parliament may extend these provisions to such areas.

  • Under this, the Parliament enacted the “Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act”, 1996.

  • It is popularly known as the PESA Act or the Extension Act.

  • At present ten states have Fifth Schedule Areas.

  • They are -

    1. Andhra Pradesh.

    2. Telangana.

    3. Chhattisgarh.

    4. Gujarat.

    5. Himachal Pradesh.

    6. Jharkhand.

    7. Madhya Pradesh.

    8. Maharashtra.

    9. Odisha .

    10. Rajasthan.

  • All the states have enacted required compliant legislations by amending the respective Panchayati Raj Acts.

  • Objectives of the PESA Act -

  • Extend Panchayat provisions of Part 9 of the Constitution to the scheduled areas with certain changes.

  • Give self-rule for bulk of the tribal population.

  • To make Gram Sabha nucleus of all activities thus having village governance with participatory democracy.

  • Have a suitable administrative framework consistent with traditional practices.

  • To safeguard and to preserve the traditions and customs of tribal communities.

  • To empower Panchayats at the appropriate levels with specific powers conducive to tribal requirements.

  • Prevent Panchayats at the higher level from taking over powers and authority of panchayats at the lower level


2)   Which of the following sentence/sentences is/are correct?

1) Article 359 does not actually suspend the Fundamental Rights.
2) Article 20 and Article 21 can be restricted only during National Emergency on grounds of war or external aggression.


a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Only 1

Explanation:

  • Article 359 authorizes the president to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.

  • This means that under Article 359, the Fundamental Rights as such are not suspended, but only their enforcement.

  • The said rights are theoretically alive but the right to seek remedy is suspended.

  • The suspension of enforcement relates to only those Fundamental Rights that are specified in the Presidential Order.

  • Further, the suspension could be for the period during the operation of emergency or for a shorter period as mentioned in the order, and the suspension order may extend to the whole or any part of the country.

  • It should be laid before each House of Parliament for approval.

  • While a Presidential Order is in force, the State can make any law or can take any executive action abridging or taking away the specified Fundamental Rights.

  • Any such law or executive action cannot be challenged on the ground that they are inconsistent with the specified Fundamental Rights.

  • When the Order ceases to operate, any law so made, to the extent of inconsistency with the specified Fundamental Rights, ceases to have effect.

  • But no remedy lies for anything done during the operation of the order even after the order ceases to operate.

  • This means that the legislative and executive actions taken during the operation of the Order cannot be challenged even after the Order expires.

  • The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article 359 in two ways -

  • Firstly, the President cannot suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21.

  • In other words, the right to protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20) and the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) remain enforceable even during emergency.

  • Secondly, only those laws which are related with the emergency are protected from being challenged and not other laws and the executive action taken only under such a law, is protected.


3)   Which of the following is/are true regarding powers and functions of National and State Human Rights Commission?

1) National Human Rights Commission is a non-constitutional body.
2) They intervene in any proceeding involving allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court.


a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of the above
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

    National and State Human Rights Commission -

  • The National Human Rights Commission and State Human Rights Commission are statutory, non-constitutional bodies, established in 1993 under an act of Parliament, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

  • A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only regarding subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the Concurrent List (List-III) of the 7th Schedule of the constitution.

  • But, if the National Human Rights Commission or any other Statutory Commission is already looking into any such case, then the State Human Rights Commission does not inquire into that case.

  • Powers and Functions -

  • Inquire into any violation of human rights.

  • They can even look into negligence in the prevention of human rights violation by a public servant.

  • They can take cognizance either suo motu or on a petition presented to it or on an order of a court.

  • They intervene in any proceeding involving allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court.

  • They visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendation.

  • Constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights are reviewed by them.

  • They recommend measures for effective implementation of safeguards.

  • They also consider other factors like terrorism etc., that curb the enjoyment of human rights and recommend measures to counter it.

  • They study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their effective implementation. But this is only for National Human Rights Commission and not the state commissions.

  • They undertake and promote research in the field of human rights.

  • They spread human rights literacy among the people.

  • They encourage NGOs working in field of human rights.

  • They undertake all such other functions as may be considered necessary for the promotion of human rights.

  • Human Rights Courts -

  • Human Rights Court can be established in every district as per the Protection of Human Rights Act (1993) for speedy trial of violation of human rights.

  • In each of these courts, the State Government appoints a public prosecutor or appoints an advocate (who has practiced for 7 years) as a special public prosecutor.

  • Only with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court of that state, can these courts be setup by the State Government.


4)   National emergency remains in operation with approval of the Parliament for -

a. Maximum period of four months
b. Maximum one year
c. Maximum period of six months
d. Indefinite period
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Maximum period of six months

Explanation:

    Parliamentary Approval and Duration -

  • The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue.

  • Originally, the period allowed for approval by the Parliament was two months, but was reduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

  • However, if the proclamation of emergency is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of one month without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it.

  • If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.

  • This provision for periodical parliamentary approval was also added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

  • Before that, the emergency, once approved by the Parliament, could remain in operation as long as the Executive (cabinet) desired.

  • However, if the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of six months without approving the further continuance of Emergency, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the mean-time approved its continuation.

  • Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority, that is,

    (a) a majority of the total membership of that house, and

    (b) a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting.

  • This special majority provision was introduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

  • Previously, such resolution could be passed by a simple majority of the Parliament.

  • Revocation of Emergency Proclamation -

  • A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation.

  • Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval.

  • Further, the President must revoke a proclamation if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.

  • Again, this safeguard was introduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

  • Before the amendment, a proclamation could be revoked by the president on his own and the Lok Sabha had no control in this regard.

  • The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 also provided that, where one-tenth of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha give a written notice to the Speaker (or to the president if the House is not in session), a special sitting of the House should be held within 14 days for the purpose of considering are solution disapproving the continuation of the proclamation.

  • A resolution of disapproval is different from a resolution approving the continuation of a proclamation in the following two respects -

    (a) The first one is required to be passed by the Lok Sabha only, while the second one needs to be passed by the both Houses of Parliament.

    (b) The first one is to be adopted by a simple majority only, while the second one needs to be adopted by a special majority.


5)   Who prioritizes product backlog?

a. Product owner
b. Scrum team
c. Scrum master
d. All the above
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Scrum master

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!


6)   In a coded message, SLOW MOVE, GET BACKWARDS, FIRE AWAY is written as VFMD ZMWE, BEN PCTLDCOXU, QHOE CDCI.
  • Based on this coding scheme, spot the codes for following words
SALTY


a. UCFNI
b. UCFIN
c. UCINF
d. UCHIN
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: UCFNI

Explanation:

LetterGETAWYFIRBCKDSMOVL
CodeBENCDIQHOPTLXUZMWF
LetterSALTY
CodeUCFNI


7)   What is Navika Sagar Parikrama?

a. First ever circumnavigation of globe by all women crew
b. First ever circumnavigation of globe by all women Indian crew
c. First ever circumnavigation of Indian peninsula by all women crew
d. First ever circumnavigation of Indian peninsula by all woman Indian crew
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: First ever circumnavigation of globe by all women Indian crew

Explanation:
Union Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on 10th Sept flagged off the all-women team of the ‘Navika Sagar Parikrama’ in Panaji, Goa.

The crew of the ‘Sagar Parikrama’ comprises of six-member all women team on board the sailing vessel INSV Tarini and will circumnavigate the globe in approximately 165 days.

This is the first-ever Indian circumnavigation of the globe by an all-women crew. Cdr Dilip Dhonde has trained the crew. He is the first sailor to circumnavigate.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi took to Twitter to congratulate and wish the team on their journey.

The team comprises of- Lt Cdr Vartika Joshi and Lt Payal Gupta from Uttarakhand, Lt Cdr Pratibha Jamwal from Himachal, Lt Cdr P Swathi from Andhra Pradesh, Lt Aishwarya Boddapati from Telangana and Lt Shourgrakpam Vijaya Devi hailing from Manipur.

  • Vartika Joshi has rich sailing experience and has led INSV Mhadei as well as INSV Tarini.
  • Pratibha Jamwal has sailed from Goa to Port Blair, Goa to Mauritius and Goa to Cape Town.
  • P Swathi who sailed onboard INSV Mhadei also took part in the recent Cape to Rio race.
  • Aishwarya Boddapati has sailed onboard INSV Tarini and Mhadei in 2017 and 2016 respectively.
  • Vijaya Devi has sailed extensively from 2014 onwards.
  • Payal Gupta has distinguished herself as a sailor.


8)   A. For years, the singles competition was judged according to two categories.
B. Secondly, the compulsory - figures category required each skater to perform three or six repetitions of three figures drawn from a possible 41 patterns.
C. Figure skating is primarily a sport of amateurs, contests are held for singles and for pairs.
D. Firstly, the free - skating category judged a skater’s ability to perform jumps, spins, spirals, and skating coordinated with music.
E. All figures are based on a figure - eight pattern or variations thereof.


a. BCADE
b. CADBE
c. CDBAE
d. ABCDE
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: CADBE

Explanation:
The first sentence should be C as it is the introductory statement about the sport of figure-skating.

The next sentence should be A as it tells us about the two categories.

The connective word ‘Firstly’ and ‘Secondly’ used in sentence D and B suggest their sequence. So, the next sentence should be D followed by B.

The last sentence should be E.
The correct sequence should be “CADBE”


9)   Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: A

Explanation:
The correct sequence should be: BCEDA


10)   Which of the following is/are true regarding Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs)?

1) DPSPs are not automatically enforced.
2) Court can uphold the validity of a law on the ground that it was enacted to give effect to a DPSP.


a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. All of the above
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
Distinction between DPSPs and FRs -

Fundamental Rights -

1. These are negative as they prohibit the State from doing certain things.
2. These are justiciable, i.e., they are legally enforceable by the courts in case of their violation.
3. They aim at establishing political democracy.
4. These have legal sanctions.
5. They promote the welfare of the individual. Hence, they are personal and individualistic.
6. They do not require any legislation for their implementation.
7. They are automatically enforced.
8. The courts are bound to declare a law violating any of the Fundamental Rights as unconstitutional and invalid.

Directive Principles -

1. These are positive as they require the State to do certain things.
2. These are non-justiciable, that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
3. They aim at establishing social and economic democracy in the country.
4. These have moral and political sanctions.
5. They promote the welfare of the community. Hence, they are societarian and socialist.
6. They require legislation for their implementation.
7. They are not automatically enforced.
8. The courts cannot declare a law violating any of the Directive Principles as unconstitutional and invalid.
9. However, they can uphold the validity of a law on the ground that it was enacted to give effect to a directive.


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